Let's take a standard I IV V Blues progression. We have E, A and B or E7 A7 and B7. So all the chords are essentially major chords with a b7. Technically that's Mixolydian territory isn't it?
So why is it that the MINOR Pentatonic fits so well over:
1) a progression without a third (i.e neither minor nor major no?)
2) a progression where all the chords are major?)
For instance in the E minor penta you have a G, in the E major chord you have a G#, but I never really noticed any clash.
Where does this ambiguity come from and what's the theory behind all this? I'm not a big theory reader so I honestly got no idea...
So why is it that the MINOR Pentatonic fits so well over:
1) a progression without a third (i.e neither minor nor major no?)
2) a progression where all the chords are major?)
For instance in the E minor penta you have a G, in the E major chord you have a G#, but I never really noticed any clash.
Where does this ambiguity come from and what's the theory behind all this? I'm not a big theory reader so I honestly got no idea...
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