Impedance between preamp/pedals/power amp questions

JMR

New member
Ive been stressing on this for awhile. I trust you guys more than anyone else on matters like this, so here goes!

I use a Peavey preamp with three outputs. This is from the manual:

1/4" @ 47K ohms or greater, 0dB, 1V RMS
1/4" @ 47K Ohms or greater, +10dB, 3V RMS
XLR @ 600 Ohms or greater, -10dB, 0.3V RMS, balanced

I have the 1/4 0dB output going into a pedal, standard 1M Ohm input, 1K Ohm, 0dB outputs.

From there it goes into two power amp inputs on a Peavey head, which both say:

High-Z, 20K Ohms, 0dB, 1V RMS.

From my limited understanding, as long as the source is lower than the load, it's OK. Is this accurate? Is there more to it than that?

I am wondering because recetly I had occasion to plug the preamp out directly into one of the power amp ins for a quick jam. This meant the outs wanted to see 47K or greater, but got 20K. It sounded MUCH better than it usually does, across the board. I noticed it right away, and I really noticed it once I had plugged everything back in the "right" way.

So now I wonder about replacing the pedal (which does nothing but split the signal stereo) with a mixer I have that also has 20K inputs, then taking that out into the power amp ins. The mixer outs are only 120 Ohms! Which is lower than 20K obviously, but is it TOO low? Or will the high-> low be no good to begin with?

Lastly, if anyone knows of just a box that will split this signal that wants to see 47K or greater into two signals without blowing anything up, and be happy feeding 2 loads @ 20K ohms, please clue me in.



:scratchch

:thanks:
 
Re: Impedance between preamp/pedals/power amp questions

Come on, surely someone can help??

:friday:

Edit: so I dont sound like a jerk.
 
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