Its 2;30 a.m and I came to Amp Central and I have to inquire about this.;
Player X got his famous tone by use of Amp Y and Pedal Z..
and i'm trying to nail that tone, so I got pedal Z, but no way i can get amp Y..
you followin' me mate ?...
...So i get this bright idea, see... why not run the 'pedal in a box' copy of amp Y right after Pedal Z ( in this case inot a Fender Superrack 60 amp) thus copping Player X's tone to a T!?
Would this sorta thing workat all? I know this is a bit vague, so let me specify....;
Jimmy Page used an Old Supro, with a Vox Tonebender distortion or fuzz on Zepp1,
so I'm thinking of using the Supro in a box BJFE Honeybee right after the Tonebender ( both clones of course) into a Fender Super rack 60 amp to get closer to the sound of Zepp1 than just the tonebender alone through the fender amp.
Could this cockamamie scheme work?
Player X got his famous tone by use of Amp Y and Pedal Z..
and i'm trying to nail that tone, so I got pedal Z, but no way i can get amp Y..
you followin' me mate ?...
...So i get this bright idea, see... why not run the 'pedal in a box' copy of amp Y right after Pedal Z ( in this case inot a Fender Superrack 60 amp) thus copping Player X's tone to a T!?
Would this sorta thing workat all? I know this is a bit vague, so let me specify....;
Jimmy Page used an Old Supro, with a Vox Tonebender distortion or fuzz on Zepp1,
so I'm thinking of using the Supro in a box BJFE Honeybee right after the Tonebender ( both clones of course) into a Fender Super rack 60 amp to get closer to the sound of Zepp1 than just the tonebender alone through the fender amp.
Could this cockamamie scheme work?
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