Recently in an issue of Guitar World in the Tech Ed section, a reader wrote in asking what the tonal differences between 8 and 16-ohm speakers were.
Matt Bruck, the writer for the column, responded that if you compare two of the same speakers with different ohmages side-by-side, the 8-ohm model will have a greater midrange content than the 16-ohm model will. This is consistent with what I've learned from various people on here over the years...
THEN he said something that kinda surprised me. He said:
My question is this - is it true that 16 ohm settings use the full transformer coil to do the work and 8-ohm settings only use half? If it is can someone explain to me how that works, electronically? I usually run an 8-ohm output into an 8-ohm cab, am I not getting "all the tone the amp is capable of" that way?
Any light shed on the subject is appreciated.
Matt Bruck, the writer for the column, responded that if you compare two of the same speakers with different ohmages side-by-side, the 8-ohm model will have a greater midrange content than the 16-ohm model will. This is consistent with what I've learned from various people on here over the years...
THEN he said something that kinda surprised me. He said:
My preference is for a 16-ohm cabinet driven by an amp at its 16-ohm setting. This is because an amp's 16-ohm setting uses the output transformer's full winding; the 8-ohm setting uses only part of the output transformer. In other words, the 16-ohm setting gives you all the tone the amp is capable of producing.
My question is this - is it true that 16 ohm settings use the full transformer coil to do the work and 8-ohm settings only use half? If it is can someone explain to me how that works, electronically? I usually run an 8-ohm output into an 8-ohm cab, am I not getting "all the tone the amp is capable of" that way?
Any light shed on the subject is appreciated.